2017湖南英语高考试卷
作为占高考英语总分20%的完形填空题,其效度的高低直接影响着高考英语试卷的质量,下面是本站小编为你整理关于2017湖南英语高考试卷的内容，希望大家喜欢!
第一节f共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后面有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个
选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10
秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the woman want to do?
A. She wants to have lunch.
B. She wants to buy a table.
wants to wait for someone.
2. What is the time now by Shelly's watch?
A. 2:55. B.3:00. C.3:05.
3. What does the man really want to say?
A. The lady shouldn't care too much about it.
B. The kid has secretly had some of the candies.
C. He gave the kid fewer candies on purpose.
4. Where does the conversation most probably take place?
A. In a lecture hall. a train. a cinema.
5. Why does the man call Doctor Lee?
A. He wants to see Doctor Lee about his illness.
B. He wants to ask Doctor Lee to give a lecture.
C. He wants to discuss something with Doctor Lee.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、
B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白
前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的
作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
请听第6段材料，回答第6，7题。
6. Where is the man going?
A. The travel agency. bank. shop.
7. How will the man go there?
A. In his own car. the woman's car. a taxi.
请听第7段材料，回答第8,9题。
8. What's the weather like outside?
A. It's raining. 's sunny. 's cloudy.
9. How does the woman feel now?
A. Comfortable. y. htened.
请听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What's the relation between the speakers?
A. Friends. and and wife. and employee.
11. Why does the woman look womed?
A. She has been late for work recently.
B. She is not getting on well with his boss.
C. She has trouble taking her children to school.
12. What might the woman think ofAlice's way to deal with her problem?
A. Practical. lievable. tful.
请听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. How long will Anna still have to stay in London?
A. At least 40 days. least 30 days. least 25 days.
14. What does Anna do in the afternoon?
A. Taking classes. g homework. g sightseeing.
15. Why does Anna want to improve English?
A. To get a promotion soon.
B. To communicate with her customers better.
C. To make friends with British People.
16. What do we know about Anna?
A. She has never been to London before.
B. She knew little English before coming to London.
C. She practices English with her roommates.
请听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What did the speaker do for his holiday last year?
A. Went to the mountains. to the beach. ed at home.
18. What does the speaker like about the seashore?
A. Sunbathing at the seashore.
ing on the sea.
C. Taking a walk along the beach.
19. How far is it to the seashore?
A. 18 miles. B.80 miles. C.300 miles.
20. Where did the speaker decide to go at last?
A. To the beach. the mountains. the countryside.
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A. B.C和D)中，选出最佳选项。
A
China Import and Export Fair, also known as the Canton Fair, is held in Guangzhou
every spring and autumn. The Fair is a comprehensive one with the longest history, the
highest level, the largest scale, the most complete exhibit variety, the broadest distribution
of overseas buyers and the greatest business turnover in China.
Canton Fair attracts more than 24 000 China s best foreign trade companies with good
credibility and sound financial capabilities, and 500 0verseas companies to participate in
the Fair.
Canton Fair is a platform for Import and export mainly, with various and flexible
patterns of trade. Besides traditional way of negotiating against samples, the Fair holds
Canton Fair Online . Various types of business activities such as economic and technical
cooperation and exchanges, goods inspection, insurance, transportation, advertising and
consultation are also carried out in flexible ways. Business people from all over the world
are gathering in Guangzhou, exchanging business information and developing friendship.
Events Schedule of the 115th Session of Canton Fair
Time: May lst, 14:00-16:00
Place: No. 8 Meeting Room, B Floor, Area B
Event: Training Seminar of Overseas Marketing
Theme: Market Segmentation and Channel Building
Details: Cloris, Project Facilitator, Trade for Sustainable Development of International
Trade Centre (ITC)
Time: May 2nd, 14:00- 16:30
Place: No. 8 Meeting Room, B Floor, Area B
Event: Fashion and Trend Forum
Theme: The "must have" fashion trends for Meds and Womeds wear for Spring/Summer
Details: Michael Leow, Sales and Market Director of Fashion Snoops (Asia Pacific)
21. The Canton Fair is organized in Guangzhou _ .
A. every two years B. every season C. once a year D. twice a year
22. If you want to visit the clothing show, you can be there _ .
A. on May lst 14:00 - 18:00 B. on May 2nd 14:00 - 16:30
C. on May lst 8:00 - 16:30 D. on May 2nd 10:00 - 16:00
23. What is the main purpose of the text?
A. To introduce the Canton Fair.
B. To present overseas investment.
C. To report the trade achievements.
D. To attract the best foreign trade companies.
B
aktak tabulaba?
You probably don't know how to answer that question---unless you happen to be one
ofthe about 430 people in the world who speak a language called Matukar Panau. Then you
would know it means "What are we doing?" Matukar Panau is one of the world's rarest
languages. It is spoken in just two small coastal villages in Papua New Guinea.
Several years ago, David Hamson, a language expert, didn't know much about
Matukar Panau either. No one had ever recorded or even studied its words and rules. With
so few speakers, the language risked disappearing soon. It was endangered.
Hamson didn't want that to happen to Matukar Panau. So in 2009, he set out for Papua
New Guinea. His goal: use modern technology to help the remaining speakers preserve
their native tongue.
But Matukar Panau is far from the only language facing loss. Studies suggest that by
the end of this century, nearly half of the 7,000 languages now spoken worldwide could
disappear. They're in danger partly because the only people left speaking them are elderly
adults. When those individuals die, their language will die with them. In addition, children
may discard a native language and instead use more common global languages, such as
Chinese, English or Spanish.
In the United States alone, 134 native American languages are endangered. "language
hotspots" exist all over the world. These are places with endangered languages that haven't
been recorded. They include the state of Oklahoma, pockets of central and eastern Siberia,
parts of northern Australia and communities in South America.
24. What did Harrison go to PaPua New Guinea for?
A. Learning their native language
B. Helping preserve their endangered tongue
C. Leaning their modern technology
D. Teaching the natives a new language
25. The underline word "discard" in Paragraph 4 means .
A. hear of B. pick up C. get rid of D. learn about
26. The last two paragraphs imply that endangered languages are _ .
A. dying quickly in Siberia B. becoming a worldwide problem
C. popular in some special places D. some native tongues
27. According to the passage, the author is _ about the endangered languages.
A. indifferent B. suspicious C. supportive D. concerned
C
I told my friend Graham that I often cycle two miles from my house to the town centre
but unfortunately there is a big hill on the route. He replied, "You mean fortunately." He
explained that I should be glad of the extra exercise that the hill provided.
My attitude to the hill has now changed. I used to complain as I approached it but now
I tell myself the following. This hill will exercise my heart and lungs. It will help me to lose
weight and get fit. It will mean that I live longer. This hill is my friend. Finally I comfort
myself with the thought of all those silly people who pay money to go to a gym and sit on
stationery exercise bicycles when I can get the same value for free. I have a smile of
satisfaction as I reach the top of the hill.
Problems are there to be faced and overcome. We cannot achieve anything with an
easy life. Helen Keller was the first deaf and blind person to gain a university degree. Her
activism and writing proved inspirational. She wrote, "Character cannot be developed in
ease. Only through experiences of suffering can the soul be strengthened, vision cleared,
ambition inspired and success achieved."
One of the main determinants of success in life is our attitude towards adversity. From
time to time we all face hardships, problems, accidents and difficulties. Some are of our
making but many are no fault of our own. While we cannot choose the adversity, we can
choose our attitude towards it.
Douglas Bader was 21 when in 1931 he had both legs cut off following a flying
accident. He was determined to fly again and went on to become one of the leading flying
aviators in the Battle of Britain with 22 aerial victories over the Germans . He was an
inspiration to others during the war. He said, "Don't listen to anyone who tells you that you
can't do this or that. That's nonsense. Make up your mind, you'll never use crutches or a
stick, and then have a go at everything. Go to school, and join in all the games you can. Go
anywhere you want to. But never, never let them persuade you that things are too difficult
or impossible."
The biographies of great people are full of examples of how they took steps to
overcome the difficulties they faced. The common thread is that they did not become
depressed. They chose their attitude. They chose to be positive. They took on the challenge.
They won. Nevertheless, there is still the problem of how you change your attitude towards
adversity.
28. Which of the following is true according to the author of the passage?
A. Those who want to achieve success can't expect to live an easy life.
B. Climbing hills on bicycles is the best way to take exercise.
C. Going to a gym is greatly beneficial to people's health.
D. People's attitude to hardships is the only factor of their success.
29. By quoting what Douglas Bader said, the author intends to tell us " ."
A. Failure is the mother of success.
B. A bad workman quarrels with his tools.
C. Nothing is difficult to the man who will try.
D. If you risk nothing, you will have nothing.
30. Following this passage, the author will further talk about . .
A. how his friend helped him to change his attitude towards the challenge he faced
B. why it is important to keep optimistic in face of trouble
C. what steps to take to change your attitude towards the difficulty you face
D. what great people have in common
31. Which of the following can best function as the title of the passage?
A. Different attitudes towards misfortune B. Face difficulties with a smile
C. Nothing is impossible D. Life is full of adversity
D
Adding math talk to story time at home is a winning factor for children's math
achievement, according to a new research from a university. The study from psychologists
Sian Beilock and Susan Levine shows a marked increase in math achievement among
children whose families used Bedtime Math, an iPad app that delivers engaging math story
problems for parents and children to solve together.
Even children who used the app with their parents as little as once a week saw gains in
math achievement by the end of the school year. The app's effect was especially strong for
children whose parents tend to be anxious or uncomfortable with math.
Previous research from this group has demonstrated the importance of adults' attitudes
about math for children's math success. For example, a recent study found that
math-anxious parents who help their children with math homework actually weaken their
children's math achievement.
The new findings demonstrate that structured, positive interactions around math at
home can cut the link between parents' uneasiness about math and children's low math
achievement.
"Many people experience high levels of anxiety when they have to solve a math
problem, with a majority of adults feeling at least some worries about math," said Beilock,
professor in Psychology and author of Choke, a book about stress and performance. "These
math-anxious parents are probably less likely to talk about math at home, which affects
how competent their children are in math. Bedtime Math encourages a dialogue between
parents and kids about math, and offers a way to engage in high-quality math interactions in
a low-effort, high-impact way."
Study participants included 587 first-grade students and their parents. Families were
given an iPad installed with a version of the Bedtime Math app, with which parents and
their children read stories and answer questions involving math, including topics like
counting, shapes and problem-solving. A control group received a reading app that had
similar stories without the math content and questions related to reading comprehension
instead. Children's math achievement was assessed at the beginning and end of the school
year. Parents completed a questionnaire about their nervousness with math.
The more times parents and children in the math group used the app, the higher
children's achievement on a math assessment at the end of the school year. Indeed, children
who frequently used the math app with their parents outperformed similar students in the
reading group by almost three months in math achievement at year's end.
32. Bedtime Math is an iPad app that _ .
A. requires parents and children to answer reading comprehension questions
B. assesses children's math achievement and parents' nervousness with math
C. encourages children together with their parents to solve math story problems
D. teaches children how to count, recognize shapes and solve practical problems
33. The previous study found that____.
A. help from math-anxious parents improves children's math achievement
B. interactions around math at home will cut off the family relationship
C. children's math achievement is related to parents' attitude about math
D. children can achieve more success if they see the importance of math
34. We can infer from the passage that____.
A. it is the math problems related to the stories that make the great difference
B. children whose parents are uneasy about math are superior to other students
C. Parents using the app for three months can see gains in math achievement
D. the frequency of using the app has nothing to do with children's achievement
35. What does the author want to tell us?
A. High-anxiety parents influence children's attitude about math.
B. Frequent use of app can develop problem-solving ability.
C. Low-effort activities create good parent-child relationship.
D. High-quality math interactions improve children's performance.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两
项为多余选项。
How to Improve Your Study Habits
Perhaps you are an average student with average intelligence. You do well enough in
school, but you probably think you will never be a top student.__36 can receive
better grades if you want to and even can be top students without additional work. Here's
how:
◎Plan your time carefully.
Make a list of your weekly tasks. This weekly schedule may not solve all of your
problems, but it will make you more aware of how you spend your time.__37 .
◎38_
It may be a desk or a chair at home or in the school library, but it should be
comfortable, and it should not have distractions.
◎Make good use of your time in class
Listening to what the teacher says in class means less work later. Sit where you can
see and hear well. Take notes to help you remember what the teacher says.
◎Study regularly
Go over your notes as soon as you can after class. If you know what the teacher will
discuss the next day, skim and read that material too. This will help you understand the next
class. 39 .
◎Develop a good attitude about tests
The world won't end if you don't pass a test, so don't worry excessively about a single
test. Tests provide grades, but they also let you know what you need to spend more time
studying, and they help make your knowledge permanent.
There are other techniques that might help you with your study. Talk with your
classmates about their study techniques. 40 oving your study habits will improve
your grades.
A. Share with them what you have found to be helpful
before you read
C. Find a good place to study
D. This, however, is not necessarily the case.
E. Read about these points in your textbook.
F. Furthermore, it will enable you to plan your activities so that you have adequate time for
both work and play
G.A good review leads to improved performance on test
第三部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中，选出可以
填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡该项涂黑。
”If mum finds out that I'm going to the beach, I’ll be in big 41 .”I muttered(轻声
低语)to myself softly.
I crept slowly down the stairs and tried to walk 42 into the kitchen. As I was
walking towards the back door, mum asked "Where are you going? “I answered, "I'm going
to the garden to play." After I got out of the kitchen, I breathed a sign of 43 .I scaled
the fence, jumped onto the muddy field and started 44 towards the bus-stop at top
speed.
After half-an-hour, I was at the 45 scanning the crowd for my friends, Jimmy
and Bobby. After a while, I spotted them near a coconut tree and we began to play
volleyball 46 .
Suddenly, Bobby 47 the ball too hard and the ball fell into the sea. The__48
came in and carried the ball further and further away from the shore.1 wanted to____49
my swimming skills so I decided to get the ball for them.
I 50 the water and started swimming. Ten minutes later,I became tired but when
I saw that the ball was only a few feet away from me, I 51 an extra burst of speed.
52_, just as l was going to grab the ball, a very strong current swept the ball further away
from me. At that moment, a string of weed tangled(缠绕)up with my feet and I could not
swim properly. I struggled to keep 53 but it was no use. "If I had 54 to mum
and dad, this would never have happened," I thought silently.
Finally, after struggling for a minute or two, I had no more energy and got pulled
underwater. I tugged at the weed which finally broke. I swam back to the 55 ,gasping
for breath. I was exhausted but I shouted for help. By the time, a lifeguard who was holding
a life buoy reached me, I had already 56.
When l woke up,1 was in an 57 room lying on a bed. It was not until a doctor
came into the room that I realized that l was in a 58 r a few minutes, my parents
with half angry and half worried faces walked in. My parents 59 me for sneaking out
of the house but were also glad that l was not seriously injured.
I will never forget that temfying_60 . Neither will I ever want to show off again.
41. rise osity ble itude
42. ally ally tedly ously
43. ef ure k
44. ing ing ing ing
45. -stop h rs
46. ily tly ly lly
47. ht Bhit bed Dheld
48.
49. up off lerate sh
50. out of ted on ted up d into
51. in in ist in in
52. ver ead hermore efore
53. e e at d
54. owed ected rmed ened
55. r ace om
56. ted ived t
57. ded y by y
58. hen Bhospital en
59. ked ched ded orted
60. lenge sion rience ent
第二节(共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形
式。
Have you ever noticed that you feel happier and more relaxed after you eat bread,
pasta or fruit? Do you find that you are more energetic and awake after eating yogurt or
beans? These things are not accidents. Food affect__61 we feel more than we think.
Scientists researching 62 (it)effect on our moods are beginning to understand that we
can influence our feelings with what we eat.
Although our moods relates 63 having various foods, it is not quite as simple as
choosing the foods for the right occasions. If that 64 (be) the case, athletes would not
eat a lot of carbohydrates before a race.
Another chemical 65 (connect) with our mood is caffeine, which _66 (find) in
coffee, chocolate and many types of tea, is perhaps 6 7 worst thing you can have when
you are feeling stressed.
Of course, 68 (enjoy)a nice meal with friends, whatever we eat, can also impact
our spirits. Being with friends and family plays a big part in experiencing happiness.
Most 69 (important), though, remember the following old rule: try to eat
different food, 70 not too much.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作
文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词
的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(八)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线()划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
Ben is my good friend. We are of the same age.I like being with him because he often
make me happy.
But yesterday we have an argument about the football clubs. During the break time,
we argued about what club was the best. Me thought it was FC Barcelona but Ben thought
it was Real Madrid C.F. After that, he said good-bye to me and talked with students loudly.
I felt angry with him.
During the next break time he still didn't talk to me. He didn't even look at me. I felt
very sad because we are good friend. When it was time to go home, I asked him when he
wanted to go with me. But he said "No" to me and went away.
At last, Ben called to me just before l went to bed, I said I ever minded. We are still
good friends now and I feel much good.
第二节书面表达(满分25分)
假如你是李华，你收到留学生Frank来信。他希望参加你校即将举行的成语
大赛，请你给他写封回信，介绍本次大赛的相关事宜。
注意：1、词数100左右。
2、可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
2017湖南英语高考试卷答案第一部分听力
1-5 ACBAC 6-10 BBACB 11-15 CACCB 16-20 AACBB
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题：每小题2分，满分30分)
A 篇阅读21-23 DBA B 篇阅读24-27 BCBD
C篇阅读28-31 ACCBD 篇阅读 32-35 CCAD
第二节(共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分)36 –40 DFCGA
第三部分英语知识运用(共两节，满分45分
第一节 完形填空(共20 小题：每小题1.5分，满分30分)
41- 45 CBADC 46-50 ABABD 51-55 DACDB 56-60 ADBCC
第二节英语知识运用(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分)
61. how 62. its 63. to 64. were 65. connected
found ying (to enjoy也给分) rtantly / yet
第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分)
第二行 make →makes
第三行have →had
第四行what →which; Me→I
第五行 students前加other
第八行friend→friends; when →if / whether
第十行去掉called 后面的to ; ever → never
注意：因为印制原因，逗号后加and也可以给分。
第十一行 good →better
第二节(满分25分)
老师评分：
1、总的评分原则是高考评分要求。
2、称呼和落款必须要有，否则扣一分。
参考范文
Dear Frank,
How happy we are to know that you’re going to participate in our Chinese Idiom Contest. Here is what you are supposed to know about.
We're going to hold the contest in the school library at 8:00 a.m. on December 20, 2016. Characters wrongly usedare to be recognized in some Chinese idioms. Besides, you are required to say out the idioms by guessing gestures of your partner. Hopefully,what I have to remind you of is that you’d better get one story of idiom prepared in case you are probably invited to tell one. By the way, all our Chinese teachers will be invited as judges.
Expecting your excellence in the approaching contest. Best wishes!
Yours，
Li Pin
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